You say "but in practice..." but then proceed to handwave generalities. For instance, are you arguing we can preemptively say they don't have to follow any law on the off chance one of them might come up in the performance of their duties? It sounds an awful lot like you are, and there's essentially no "in practice" evidence to motivate that.
> are you arguing we can preemptively say they don't have to follow any law on the off chance one of them might come up in the performance of their duties?
You're describing the principle of qualified immunity, which is already in effect in US courts. I was suggesting an explanation for why this is the law of the land, despite it being in such obvious contrast with the principles of a free and democratic society.
If you don't agree with my explanation, I'd be interested in yours: why do you think cops are exempted from having to follow the law the same as other civilians?
