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Would that be enforceable? Can people be excluded from the right to a legal dispute? It seems that otherwise any contract would include a clause that it can not be contested - which it sometimes does with mandatory mediation.


Forced arbitration seems to be legally enforceable, and I don't see why this would be any different, but IANAL


the clause comes after the "we leave her $2000000.00" section.

she is not excluded at any point; she gets $2M. (or $0.02, whatever)

Or nothing if she wants to fight cuz she thinks she deserves $10M, etc. etc.




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